Q: Why do you condemn the celebration of what the Christains think is birth of God (Allaah)? We should be teaching respect for other peoples and religions. Yet with such condemnation and calling it falsehood, it makes it difficult for rational, honest and respectful persons to communicate.
Answer: Praise be to the One God, who begets not, nor is begotten. You seem to have misinterpreted the condemnation of celebration of Christmas as a matter of disrespect for Christians. In reality, it is out of respect for Allaah and Jesus and the teachings of our Prophet Muhammad, peace be upon them.
It is an integral part of our faith to reject celebrations that have not been prescribed and/or that have a basis in falsehood, as inevitably they lead to misguidance and alterations in faith, as has happened with Christianity. There is nothing radical or "fringe” about this. It is our basic right to protect our faith and practice from distortion and falsehood. Surely no one has a right to condemn us for this.
Do you think Encyclopedia Britannica is rational and honest? Please read what they have to say about Christmas: Excerpts quoted directly from http://www.britannica.com!
"The word Christmas is derived from the Old English Cristes moesse,” Christ's Mass”: (There is no certain tradition of the date of Christ’s birth. Christian chronograhers of the 3rd century believed that the creation of the world took place at the spring equinox, then reckoned as March 25; hence the new creation in the incarnation (i.e, the conception) and death of Christ must therefore have occurred on the same day. With his birth following nine months later at the winter solstice. December 15)....
According to a Roman almanac, the Christian festival of Christmas was celebrated in Rome by AD 336…
The reason why Christmas came to be celebrated on December 25 remains uncertain, but most probably the reason is that early Christians wished the date to coincide with the pagan Roman festival marking the “birthday of the unconquered sun” (natalis solis invict); this festival celebrated the winter solstice, when the days again begin to lengthen and the sun begins to climb higher in the sky.
The traditional customs connected with Christmas have accordingly developed from several sources as a result of the coincidence of the celebration of the birth of Christ with the pagan agricultural and solar observances at midwinter. In the Roman world the Saturnalia (December 17) was a time of merry making and exchange of gifts. December 25 was also regarded as the birth date of the Iranian mystery god Mithra, the Sun of Righteousness. On the Roman New Year (January I), houses were decorated with greenery and lights and gifts were given to children and the poor.
To these observances were added the German and Celtic Yule rites when the Teutonic tribes penetrated into Gaul, Britain, and central Europe. Food and good fellowship, the Yule log and Yule cakes, greenery and fir trees, and gifts and greetings all commemorated different aspects of this festive season. Fires and lights, symbols of warmth and lasting life, have always been associated with the winter festival, both pagan and Christian. Since the European Middle Ages, evergreens, as symbols of survival, have been associated with Christmas… [end quote]
So as any rational person can see, there is no sound basis for Christmas, nor did Jesus (peace be upon him) or his true followers celebrate Christmas or ask anyone to celebrate Christmas, nor was there any record of anyone calling themselves Christians celebrating Christmas until several hundred years after Jesus. So were the companions of Jesus more righteously guided in not celebrating Christmas or are the people of today?
So if you want to respect Jesus, (peace be upon him), as Muslims do, don't celebrate some fabricated event that was chosen to coincide with pagan festivals and copy pagan customs. Do you honestly think God, or even Jesus himself, would approve or condemn such a thing? If you say approve, then obviously you are not interested in the truth.
We ask Allaah, the One, Singular God with no partners or sons, the God of all creation and mankind, to guide us all to the path of guidance and sincerity.
Sheikh Muhammed Salih AI·Munajjid
IslamQ&A
Q: What is the ruling on eating food prepared for a Christian festival? What is the ruling on accepting their invitation to their celebrations of the birth of the Messiah (peace be upon him) [i.e.,Christmas celebration]?
Answer: Praise be to Allaah. It is not permissible to celebrate innovated festivals such as the Christrnas of the Christains, or Nawrooz (Persian New Year) or Mahrajaan (Persian festival), or festivals that have been innovated by Muslims such as the Prophet's birthday in Rabee'al-Awwal or the lsraa'in Rajab and so on. It is not permissible to eat from that food which the Christians or Mushrikeen prepare on the occasion of their festivals. It is also not permissible to accept their invitations to join them in their celebrations of those festivals, because this encourages them and is tantamount to approving of their bid'ah, which gives the wrong idea to ignorant people and makes and them think that there is nothing wrong with that. And Allaah knows best.
From AI-Lu 'lu' al-Makeen min Fataawaa IbnJibreen. p. 27.
Q: Because of some personal circumstances we moved to a different country, where a lot of things are different, such as the time of prayer, etc. I want to ask you: I am keen to fast on the day of ‘Arafah, but the Hijri date in my new country of residence is different from the date in Saudi: when the date here is the 8th of the month, it is the 9th in Saudi. Should fast on the 8th - which is the 9th in Saudi – or should I fast according to our local date?
Answer: Praise be to Allaah. Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen (RAH) was asked: what if the day of ‘Arafah is different because of the moon being sighted at different times in different countries? Should we fast according to the moon sighting in the country where we are or according to the moon sighting in al-Haramayn (the two Holy Sanctuaries)?
He replied: This is based on a difference of opinion among the scholars: Is there only one moon sighting for the whole world or does it vary according to when the moon rises in different places? The correct view is that it varies according to when the moon rises in different places.
For example, if the moon is sighted in Makkah, and today is the ninth, and it is sighted elsewhere one day before Makkah, and the ninth and the day of ‘Arafah in Makkah tenth for them, it is not permissible for them to fast on this day because it is Eid.
Similarly if it so happens that they sight the moon after Makkah, and the 9th in Makkah is the 8th for them, then they should fast the day that is the 9th for them, which is the 10th in Makkah. This is the correct view because the Prophet (salallahu alayhi wa sallam) said:
"When you see it (the new moon) fast and when you see it break your fast."
Those who did not see the moon in their own location have not seen it. Just as people are unanimously agreed that the times for dawn and sunset vary according to their own location so too the months are also worked out by location, just like the daily timings.
Majmoo' al-Fataawa, 20.
And he was asked about some people who worked in the Saudi embassy in a foreign country, who said that they were having a problem concerning the fast of Ramadaan and the fast on the day of ‘Arafah. The brothers there had split into three groups:
One group said: we will fast with Saudi and break the fast with Saudi.
Another group said: we will fast with the country where we are living and break the fast with them.
The last group said: we will fast Ramadaan with the country where we are living, but we will fast with Saudi.
They asked the Shaykh to provide them with a detailed answer concerning the Ramadaan fast and fasting the day of ‘Arafah, whilst noting that for the past five years, in the country where they were living neither Ramadaan nor the day of ‘Arafah had been observed on the same days as in Saudi; their Ramadaan started one or two days after it had been announced in Saudi, and sometimes three days after.
He replied: In the name of AlIaah the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.
The scholars differed concerning the issue when the moon is sighted in one part of the Muslim world and not in another: do all the Muslims have to act on the basis of that or only those who sighted it and the people who live in the same region, or only those who sighted it and the people who live under the same government?
There are many different points of view. The most correct view is that the matter should be referred to those who have knowledge of it. If the moon rises at the same point for two countries they become like one country, so if it is sighted in one of them that ruling applies to the other. But if the rising points differ, then each country has its own ruling.
This is the view favoured by Shaykh aI·lslam Ibn Taymiyah (RAH); this is the apparent of the texts of the Qur’aan and Sunnah and what is implied by analogy.
In the Qur'aan it says:
"So whoever of you sights (the crescent on the first night of) the month (of Ramadan i.e, is present at home), he must observe Sawm (fasts) that month, and whoever is ill or on a journey, the same number [of days which one did not observe Sawm (fasts) must be made up] from other days. Allaah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you. (He wants that you) must complete the same number (of days), and that you must magnify Allaah [i.e, to say Takbeer (Allaahu Akbar: Allaah is the Most Great)] for having guided you so that you may be grateful to Him” (Q2[Baqarah]:185).
What is implied by this verse is that whoever does not see it is not obliged to fast. In the Sunnah, the Prophet (salallahu alayhi wa sallam) said:
"When you see it (the new moon) then fast, and when you see it, break your fast."
What is implied by this hadeeth is that if we did not see it we are not obliged to fast or to break the fast.
With regard to analogy, the times for starting and ending the fast each day should be worked out in each country on its own, according to the local times of sunrise and sunset. This is a point on which there is scholarly consensus. So you see the people in East Asia starting their fast before the people of west Asia, and breaking their fast before them because dawn breaks for the former before the latter. And the sun sets for the former before the latter.
Once this is established with regard to the times for starting and ending the daily fast, it also applies to the start and end of the monthly fast. There is no difference between them.
But if many regions corne under the same government and the ruler gives the command for the fast to start or end, then his command must be followed, because this is a matter of scholarly dispute but the command of the ruler dispels that dispute.
Based on the above you should fast and break your fast along with the people of the country where you are living. whether that is in accordance with your country of origin or not. Similarly on the day of ‘Arafah you should follow the country where you are living.
Written by Muhammad aI·Saalih al·-‘Uthaymeen,
28/8/1420 AH.
Q: What is the ruling on eating snails? Bear in mind that preparing snails dish requires cooking them alive! Were snails used as food during the era of Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him?
Answer: Praise be to Allaah. Snails are of two types, land snails and sea snails. Land snails come under the same heading as "insects and vermin" which have no blood that flows. Sea snails come under the heading of shellfish, which are sea animals. In al-Mawsoo'ah al-'Arabiyyah al- 'Aalamiyyah it says:
"The snail is a invertebrate sea animal, and it is a kind of shellfish. Most snails have an external shell; some snails have a small flat shell above or under the skin, but most do not have a shell at all.
Land Snails
With regard to the ruling on eating snails: Land snails come under the ruling on eating "insects". The majority of scholars are of the view that it is haraam. AI-Nawawi (RAH) said in al-Majmoo' (9/16):
"The view of the scholars concerning land insects ... our view is that it is haraam. This was the view of Abu Haneefah, Ahmad and Dawood. Maalik said: it is halaal".
Ibn Hazm (RAH) said:
"It is not permissible to eat land snails or any other "insects and vermin", such as geckos, cockroaches, ants, bees, flies, wasps, worms, lice, fleas, bedbugs, mosquitoes or anything else of that type, because Allaah says:
“Forbidden to you (for food) are: Al-Maitah (the dead animals)" and “unless you are able to slaughter it (before its death)" (Q5[al-Maa'idah]:3).
And there is sound proof that slaughter can only be done in the neck or upper chest so if it is not possible to slaughter it, then there is no way one can eat it unless it is dead i.e, not slaughtered properly, so it is haraam", [AI-Muhalla (6/76,77).
Snails, Same As Locusts
The Maalikis did not stipulate that a creature which has no flowing blood should be slaughtered, rather they included it under the same ruling as locusts, and its slaughter is by boiling, roasting, or piercing it with a stick or needle until it is dead, whilst saying the name of A1laah over it. In al-Mudawwanah it says:
"Maalik was asked about something in the Maghreb (North Africa) which is called a snail that is found in the desert on the trees - can it be eaten? He said: I think it is like the locust. If it is taken alive and boiled or roasted, I do not think there is anything wrong with eating it, but if it is found dead it should not be eaten".
In al-Muntaqa Sharh al-Muwatta' by Abu'I-Waleed a1-Baaji(RAH) it says:
"If that is proven; then the ruling on snails is the same as the ruling on locusts. Maalik said its slaughtering is by boiling or being pierced with a stick or needle until it dies, and the name of A1laah should be mentioned whilst doing so, as it is mentioned when cutting of the heads of locusts".
Sea Snails
Sea snails are halaal, because of the general permission with regard to eating seafood. Allaah says:
"Lawful to you is (the pursuit of) water game and its use for food - for the benefit of yourselves and those who travel" (Q5[al-Maa'idah]:96)
al-Bukhaari narrated that 'Umar ibn al-Khattaab (RA)said: "Water game means what is hunted, and its food is what the sea throws out (onto the shore)." Also, a1-Bukhaari narrated from Shurayh (RA), the companion of the Prophet (sallallaahu alayhi wa sallaam), that he said:
"Everything in the sea is madhbooh (slaughtered)."
But we have not seen any hadeeth which suggests that the Prophet (sallallaahu alayhi wa sallaam) ate snails.
To sum up: The permissibility of eating snails applies to both types, both land and sea snails. If they are cooked alive there is nothing wrong with that, because land snails have no blood so that it might be said that they must be slaughtered properly and the blood extracted and sea snails come under the general permissibility of sea game and food. And Allaah knows best.
Answered by Shaykh Muhammad ibn Saalih al-Munajjid (www.islam-qa.com)
Q: I have given my investment capital to a person who trades in medical equipment. He gives me a fixed monthly return based on projected profits. This is easier for him, since he is unable to calculate with any precision the profits he earns in a given month. Moreover, he works with a large number of investors .at one time. Experience shows that the business enjoys a sustainable and consistent profitability. Is this set-up Islamically valid?
Answer: Praise be to Allaah. This type of profit-sharing commercial venture is known in Islamic Law as mudarabah. This is where one party finances the venture and the other engages in the activities of the business. In other words, one party gives money to the other party to do business with it. They agree to share the business profits according to a pre-agreed percentage.
The scholars make it clear that it is absolutely essential for the two parties to agree to divide the profits between them according to a fixed pre-agreed percentage, like 50-50, 60-40, or 70-30. It is not permissible to guarantee a minimum return on investment, since the profitability of the venture is not guaranteed. It is likewise impermissible to specify a specific sum of money from the profits - like $1000 dollars - as a return for the investor, since this leads to an uncertain percentage share of the profits for both parties.
If the parties have agreed upon a percentage share of the profits, there is no harm if the trading partner provides a fixed monthly sum to the financing partner on the basis of expected profits, if that is convenient. However, at the end of the venture - or for a continuous venture, after a fixed period of time, like six months or a year - any shortfall or excess needs to be paid out. This is to ensure that the financing party receives the agreed-upon percentage share, no more and no less.
And Allah knows best.
Answered by Shaykh Ahmad al-Rasheed.
This article was culled from the publications of Deen Communication Limited